Комментарии:
It helped me a lot. Thank you sir.
ОтветитьThank you for the Video...Explanation was very simple to understand...Appreciate it!
ОтветитьBLESSING KA SIR!
ОтветитьI am glad I found this theory.
I had investigated this topic on my own and discovered most of this theory on my own without knowing about it.
Now I know of this theory, I can formally study it to improve my productivity further!
amazing bro
thx for simple explanation
Uhm thank you so much I am writing a test tomorrow
ОтветитьGreat video.🙏🙏🙏🙏
ОтветитьThanks. I never thought about this
ОтветитьThank you for condensing a whole 3 and a half-hour lecture into 15 minutes!
Ответитьthanks for a great work + can you send this powerpoint????
Ответитьthank you so much !
ОтветитьGod bless you, this is wonderfully explained!
ОтветитьUtilization factor would be 1.667 not 0.60 , it's wrong sir
ОтветитьOrganized and straight to the point. You're amazing.
ОтветитьJazakAllah 🔥it helped me alot
ОтветитьAnyone who worked the last example what solution did you get
Ответитьthanks for your video, it makes me understand MMS clearer
ОтветитьThank you for the explanation, very useful!
ОтветитьThank you for that lesson ❤ you made it all sound so simple
ОтветитьI am 3000 in queue, every minute it is updated, only weekdays. ??????
ОтветитьPlease help me figure out my wait time
ОтветитьSir can we take this as a final year project for bsc mathematics in college?
ОтветитьThank you for this very useful video!
ОтветитьMay I ask how to calculate the probability of more than k units last probability? Seems (6/10)**k+1, but k=??
The P0 is easy: 1-(6/10)=0.4
Thankyou so much 🎉 Great explanation
ОтветитьBro God will bless u.
ОтветитьGod bless you! Great video with great explanation and illustrations, thank you! Hope you could do more video lectures!
ОтветитьSuperb
ОтветитьMade it look so easy
Ответитьbeautifully explained
ОтветитьHope some one can help me.
Thanks for your amazing video. One thing is confused here, the definition shows that 'r'dont know how to type= mean number of arrivels per time period and mean number of people or items served per time period. But in your gas station example, why u used mins/car? it should be arrive is 10 cars/hrs, and serve 6 cars/hrs. so, the Ls should be -2.5 cars/hrs. So, my question here is how to explain the negative sign here, or we have to assume service rate have to larger than arrival rate.
Thank you
ОтветитьCan I get a solution to this: Demand is: 2,250 vehicles/hr; average speed of 60 mph; capacity of the
lane closure is 25 mph; we have 2 lanes of evenly distributed traffic.
What can we report to be the expected speed of the shock wave traveling
backwards?
why it is not an optimzation technique
ОтветитьThanks for the video, however there is an error in your video. If Lambda (the arrival rate - 10 car per hour) is higher than mu (the service rate - 6 cars per hour) the queue will explode. i.e. the waiting time will be infinite. Could it be that you mixed up the values of lambda and mu?
ОтветитьWhoua ndo
ОтветитьYou presented amazing really it was useful thanks a lot🥰
ОтветитьHELLO PO DOC, MAY ANSWER PO BA YANG ASSIGNMENT NA BIGAY NIYO? THANK YOU
ОтветитьThis information is WOW, thank you.
ОтветитьFor the example about gas station, I guess the utilization factor is 10/6 = 1.66 and not 6/10 = 0.6
Ответитьcan we get the PPT plz sir?
Ответитьim a bit confused on the values for arrival rate and service rate. You used 6 mins and 10 mins, not 1/6 and 1/10 why? from what i understand rate means a quantity per unit of time, but in your calculations you used the time. help me understand plz
ОтветитьI am glad I was recommended this.
ОтветитьExplaining better than my lecturer
Ответитьexcuse me, is there any information about the source of this queuing theory?
ОтветитьShould the values of the Erratum also be used for calculating Ws etc in 13.39?
ОтветитьGreat video
Ответить